Let $\Omega=\{0,1\}^{n}$ with $p_{\underline{\omega}}=2^{-n}$ for each $\underline{\omega}\in \Omega$. Define the events $A=\{\underline{\omega}{\; : \;} \omega_{1}=0\}$, $A=\{\underline{\omega}{\; : \;} \omega_{2}=0\}$ and $C=\{\underline{\omega}{\; : \;} \omega_{1}+\omega_{2}=0 \mbox{ or }2\}$. In words, we toss a fair coin $n$ times and $A$ denotes the event that the first toss is a tail, $B$ denotes the event that the second toss is a tail and $C$ denotes the event that out of the first two tosses are both heads or both tails. Then $\mathbf{P}(A)=\mathbf{P}(B)=\mathbf{P}(C)=\frac{1}{4}$. Further,
\[\begin{aligned}
\mathbf{P}(A\cap B)=\frac{1}{4}, \mathbf{P}(B\cap C)=\frac{1}{4}, P(A\cap C)=\frac{1}{4}, \mathbf{P}(A\cap B\cap C)=\frac{1}{4}.
\end{aligned}\]
Thus, $A,B,C$ are independent
pairwise, but not independent by our definition because $\mathbf{P}(A\cap B\cap C)\not= \frac{1}{8}=\mathbf{P}(A)\mathbf{P}(B)\mathbf{P}(C)$.
Intuitively this is right. Knowing $A$ does not given any information about $C$ (similarly with $A$ and $B$ or $B$ and $C$), but knowing $A$ and $B$ tells us completely whether or not $C$ occurred! Thus is is right that the definition should not declare them to be independent.